Talk:Ultipotence/@comment-35784433-20180618011145/@comment-35784433-20180618024642

Okay that makes sense, and I accept that, but just for the sake of analysis, you could technically imagine a character, give them Ultipotence, prove they have it, and then do the same for a Metapotent character, and making a distinction between the two as clearly as possible, have one of them defeat the other. Like, you could imagine a Metapotent defeating an Ulitpotent, or the other way around, even though it contradicts their definitions. What does that mean? Does that mean that one of those characters just didn't have Omnipotence in any form if they were beaten? I know it isn't possible, but you could still imagine a scenario where it happened. Which is the ruling factor, the power definition or the author's word?